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Test Questions and Answers

 

Question#1: Sigma refers to a roman letter that mathematicians use when discussing “average” or “mean”

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#2: Z distribution is the simplest normal distribution with the mean equal to ______ and standard deviation equal to ________?

  1. Mean=0 and Standard Deviation=1
  2. Mean=1 and Standard Deviation=0
  3. Mean=0 and Standard Deviation=0
  4. Mean=1 and Standard Deviation=1

Answer: 1

 

Question#3: A t-test is a hypothesis test in which the test statistic follows a student’s t distribution if the null hypothesis is true?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#4: In which conditions, can the null hypothesis be rejected?

  1. The test statistic is greater than the critical value
  2. P-value is smaller than alpha level
  3. P-value s greater than alpha level

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#5: Inferential statistics is descriptive only and does not make any generalizations beyond the data at hand?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#6: Match the hypothesis test with the appropriate purpose:

  1. 2 Sample t-test – Compare the means of 2 populations
  2. 1 Sample t-test – Compare the mean of a population to a value
  3. 1 Proportion test – Compare a proportion to a value
  4. 2 Proportion test – Compare two proportions

Answers identified in red

 

Question#7: One sample t-test is a hypothesis test to study whether there is a statistically significant difference between a population mean and a specified value or target?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#8: One-tailed hypothesis test is used when we care about whether there is a difference between groups and we don’t care about the direction of the difference?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#9: One-way ANOVA (one-way analysis of variance) is a statistical method to compare means of two or more populations?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#10: One-way ANOVA (one-way analysis of variance) is a statistical method to compare variances of two or more populations?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#11: Select only those that are examples of graphical analysis tools

  1. Box Plots
  2. Scatter Plots
  3. Histograms
  4. Regression Equation
  5. Run Charts

Answer: 1,2,3,5

 

Question#12: The Exponential distribution is very similar to the Poisson distribution except that the Exponentials is built on continuous variables and the Poisson is built on discrete variables.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#13: The higher the confidence level, the wider the confidence interval?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#14: The more variability, the wider the confidence interval?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#15: The null hypothesis for a normality test is that the data are normally distributed?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#16: The null hypothesis for a Paired t-test is: MuA – MuB = 0

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#17: The proportion of the area under the sampling distribution and beyond the test statistic is p-value?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#18: To reduce β risk, we decrease the sample size?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#19: What might your conclusion be for the following hypothesis test results? p-value = 0.01

  1. Reject the Null Hypothesis
  2. Fail to Reject the Null Hypothesis

Answer: 1

 

Question#20: What would your conclusion be for the following hypothesis testing results? p-value = 0.50

  1. Reject the Null Hypothesis
  2. Fail to Reject the Null Hypothesis

Answer: 2

 

Question#21: Which hypothesis test is used to check whether the population of our interest is normally distributed?

  1. Anderson-Darling test
  2. Shapiro-Wilk test
  3. Jarque-Bera test

Answer: 1,2,3

 

Question#22: Which is NOT an assumption of a one-way ANOVA?

  1. The k population
  2. The data of k populations are normally distributed
  3. The variances of k populations are unequal

Answer: 3

 

Question#23: Which of the following statements are goals of rational subgrouping? (more than 1 correct response)

  1. Maximize the likelihood of detecting special cause variation
  2. Maximize the likelihood of detecting common cause variation
  3. Identify the changes in the process
  4. Reflect the variation between sub groups

Answer: 1,3,4

 

Question#24: Which of the following tests would you use to determine if there is a statistically significant difference between a population mean and a specified value?

  1. 2 sample t-test
  2. Normality test
  3. Test for equal variances
  4. 1 sample t-test

Answer: 4

 

Question#25: Which of these would you reject the null hypothesis?

  1. p-value-0.014
  2. p-value=0.000
  3. p-value=0.400
  4. p-value=0.140

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#26: α risk is the risk of making a Type I error?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#27: If the correlation coefficient of two variables is zero, the two variables are independent?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#28: Correlation implies causation?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#29: R2 measures the proportion of variability in the data which can be explained by the model?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#30: In a multiple linear regression analysis, the p-values of the insignificant predictors are the ones that are smaller than the alpha level?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#31: When eliminating insignificant variables from a multiple linear regression model, we should remove all insignificant variables at the same time?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#32: Multicollinearity is the situation when two or more independent variables in a multiple regression model are correlated with each other?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#33: Replication in DOE increases the total degrees of freedom?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#34: Fractional factorial experiments require fewer resources and runs than full factorial experiments?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#35: Which of the following situations does NOT indicate that the simple linear regression model is statistically significant?

  1. F-statistic of ANOVA is greater than the critical statistic
  2. F-statistic of ANOVA is smaller than the critical statistic
  3. p-value of the F-test of ANOVA is lower than the alpha level
  4. correlation coefficient between the dependent and independent variable is close to 1

Answer: 2

 

Question#36: What is the total degrees of freedom of a simple linear regression model built using 25 data points?

  1. 25
  2. 24
  3. 1

Answer: 2

 

Question#37: Which of the following assumptions is NOT required to ensure the reliability of the linear regression model?

  1. The errors are normally distributed with mean equal to zero
  2. The errors are independent
  3. The errors have a constant variance
  4. The underlying population relationship is non-linear

Answer: 4

 

Question#38: In a two-level full factorial DOE with four factors, how many runs should there be?

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. 2

Answer: 3

 

Question#39: In an orthogonal design, the sum of products for each run should equal zero?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#40: What type of design would you call a 23-1 DOE?

  1. full factorial
  2. 1/2 fraction factorial
  3. 1/4 fraction factorial

Answer: 2

 

Question#41: What is the resolution of a 23-1 DOE?

  1. Resolution III
  2. Resolution IV
  3. Resolution V

Answer: 1

 

Question#42: Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures both linear and non-linear relationship between two variables?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#43: In a resolution III design, the main effects are confounded with?

  1. 2 way interaction
  2. 3 way interactions
  3. 4 way interactions

Answer: 1

 

Question#44: A correlation coefficient of 0.00 means there is absolutely no relationship?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#45: Match the following correlation coefficients with the most accurate description:

  1. r= 0.99 – Strong Positive Linear Relationship
  2. r = -0.99 – Strong Inverse Linear Relationship
  3. r = 0.61 – Moderate Positive Linear Relationship
  4. r = -0.59 – Moderate Negative Linear Relationship
  5. r = 0.00 – No linear Relationship

Answers identified in red

 

Question#46: Which of the following indicates a strong inverse relationship?

  1. r = -0.05
  2. r = 0.9
  3. r = 1.0
  4. r = -0.85

Answer: 4

 

Question#47: Which of the following are ways in which you might deal with multicollinearity?

  1. Increase the sample size
  2. Decrease the sample size
  3. Remove the variable with high mulitcollinearity and high p-value
  4. Remove the variable with low multicollinearity and high p-value

Answer: 1,3

 

Question#48: If VIF ≥ 10, there is no multicollinearity?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#49: If VIF = 1, there is no multicollinearity?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#50: In the following hypothetical regression equation, Flavor is more heavily influenced by which factor? Flavor = (124 + 0.98*temp – 9*time)

  1. temp
  2. time

Answer: 2

 

Question#51: Experiments are passive studies in which historical data are used to conduct analysis?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#52: In DOE the principle of parsimony suggests that the ultimate goal of DOE is to use the minimum amount of data to discover the maximum amount of information?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#53: When two input factors are aliases of each other, the effects they each have on the response cannot be separated?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#54: Match the following resolutions with the most accurate descriptions

  1. Resolution III – Main effects are confounded with two-way interactions
  2. Resolution IV – Main effects are confounded with three-way interactions
  3. Resolutions V – Main effects are confounded with four-way interactions

Answers identified in red

 

Question#55: R2 is also referred to as the coefficient of determination?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#56: A Cause & Effect Diagram is used to identify, organize and graphically display the potential causes of a specific effect or event?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#57: Cause & Effect Diagram provides quantitative analysis of correlation between each cause and the effect.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#58: Cp considers the within-subgroup standard deviation and Pp considers the total standard deviation from the sample data?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#59: Cp, and Pp take both the variation and the average of the process into consideration when measuring the process capability?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#60: Cpk measures the process’s potential capability to meet the two-sided specifications. It doesn’t take the process average into consideration?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#61: If Kappa is equal to 0, the measurement system is excellent?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#62: Median is the average of a set of data?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#63: Median is the middle value in a set of data?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#64: Mode is the value in a data set that occurs most frequently?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#65: SIPOC is an acronym using which words?

  1. Process
  2. Primary
  3. Suppliers
  4. Secondary
  5. Inputs

Answer: 1,3,5

 

Question#66: Standard Deviation is a measure that describes how far the data points spread away from the mean?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#67: Which are common sources of variation in most measurement systems?

  1. Part to Part Variation
  2. Humidity
  3. Repeatability
  4. Altitude
  5. Reproducibility

Answer: 1,3,5

 

Question#68: Which of the following items is not related to the accuracy of the measurement system?

  1. Bias
  2. Linearity
  3. Reproducibility
  4. Stability

Answer: 3

 

Question#69: Which of the following measurement is NOT a process capability index?

  1. Cp
  2. Cpk
  3. Kappa
  4. Percent Defectives

Answer: 3

 

Question#70: Which distribution has mean equal to np and the variance equal to np(1-p)?

  1. Binomial Distribution
  2. Normal Distribution
  3. Exponential Distribution
  4. Weibull Distribution

Answer: 1

 

Question#71: Which of the following items should always be on control charts?

  1. Control Limits
  2. Process Mean
  3. Customer Specification Limits

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#72: Match each control chart with the description that fits best:

  1. U chart – Average defects per unit
  2. P chart – percent defective
  3. NP chart – Count of defectives

Answers identified in red

 

Question#73: What is the recommended subgroup size when using Xbar-S chart to check for process stability?

  1. 1
  2. <10
  3. >10
  4. No constraints on subgroup size for Xbar-S

Answer: 3

 

Question#74: What is the subgroup size when using a I-MR control chart?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. No constraints on subgroup size

Answer: 1

 

Question#75: Which principle of the 5S methodology is about avoiding falling back to the old ways of cluttered and unorganized work environment?

  1. Sorting
  2. Shining
  3. Standardizing
  4. Sustaining

Answer: 4

 

Question#76: A Black Belt stores tools in marked locations so that workers can find & access them easily when they are needed. Which principle of 5S methodology is the Black Belt applying?

  1. Shining
  2. Sustaining
  3. Sorting
  4. Straightening (Set in Order)

Answer: 4

 

Question#77: The individuals chart in an IMR control chart is valid only if the moving range chart is in control?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#78: Control charts are valid only if the data are normally distributed?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#79: If a process is stable, the future performance of that process is predictable within certain limits?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#80: In an EWMA chart, the more recent data gets more weight than the older data?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#81: The subgroup sizes of an NP chart are constant?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#82: Return on Investment (ROI) is the ratio of net financial benefits (either gain or loss) on a project or investment, to the financial costs?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#83: Net Present Value (NPV) is total value of all future cash flows discounted to today’s value?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#84: Select all reasons why one financial benefit estimation might differ from another?

  1. Use of different discount rates
  2. Different color pen
  3. Different assumptions on project duration
  4. different assumption on project costs

Answer: 1,3,4

 

Question#85: All of the following are benefits of control plans except?

  1. Ensures compliance with changes through auditing and corrective actions
  2. Standardizes processes and work procedures
  3. Coordinates ongoing team and individual involvement
  4. Measures process performance, stability and capability
  5. Plans actions to mitigate possible out-of-control conditions
  6. Helps to analyze and eliminate potential x’s

Answer: 6. Helps to analyze and eliminate potential x’s

 

Question#86: Select all that are components of a control plan?

  1. Key Metrics
  2. Measurements
  3. Specification Limits
  4. Mitigation Actions
  5. Work Breakdown Structure

Answer: 1,2,3,4

 

Question#87: Select any of the following that are collective elements of a great control plan?

  1. Standard Operating Procedures
  2. Audit Checklists
  3. Training Plans
  4. Communication Plans
  5. Response Plans

Answer: 1,2,3,4,5

 

Question#88: Standard Operating Procedures should never include process maps or step by step procedures?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#89: Communication plans are intended to plan and prepare for the dissemination of information?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#90: Communication plans should always include the intended audience, message and purpose?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#91: Standard Operating Procedures should never be documented?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#92: From the following, select those that are characteristics of a Lean Enterprise

  1. Pull Systems
  2. Flow
  3. Availability
  4. Zero Waste
  5. Value Add

Answer: 1,2,3,4,5

 

Question#93: What type of muda is waste from working more than required, scheduling more capacity than necessary or using resources that are overkill?

  1. Inventory
  2. Over-Processing
  3. Waiting
  4. Over-Production
  5. Motion

Answer: 2

 

Question#94: The 5 Principles of Lean are paraphrased below, select the correct 5

  1. Customer Defines Value
  2. Identify the Value Stream
  3. Batch Processing
  4. Continuous Flow
  5. Manage Toward Perfection

Answer: 1,2,4,5

 

Question#95: Six Sigma originated in the 1980’s at Motorola?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#96: Achieving Six Sigma has nothing to do with meeting customer expectations?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#97: Hard costs and soft costs are two types of COPQ

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#98: CTQ’s are translated from VOC

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#99: In Six Sigma Primary and Secondary Metrics are Mandatory

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#100: To achieve Six Sigma the DMAIC methodology follows which approach

  1. Brainstorm possible factors then randomly analyze them to find the significant ones
  2. Use SME knowledge and experience to quickly find solutions
  3. Use the transfer function Y=f(x)

Answer: 3

 

Question#101: Who is credited as being the father of Six Sigma?

  1. Bob Galvin
  2. Mikel Harry
  3. Bill Smith
  4. Jack Welch

Answer: 3

 

Question#102: Which of these is not one of the 4 stages of team development?

  1. Performing
  2. Norming
  3. Storming
  4. Forming
  5. Adorning

Answer: 5

 

Question#103: Which is not a characteristic of a successful team?

  1. Team member diversity (skills, knowledge, experience..)
  2. Common goals and working together to achieve said goals
  3. Appropriate resources are available
  4. A good leader among the team
  5. Mutual Respect
  6. Complacency exists

Answer: 6. Complacency exists

 

Question#104: A well written problem statement contains all of the following except?

  1. Baseline
  2. Goal
  3. Gap
  4. COPQ
  5. Timeline Reference
  6. Complete Project Plan

Answer: 6. Complete Project Plan

 

Question#105: Lean and Six Sigma are Both focused on Quality & Value for the customer?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#106: Which of the following is the one that is not part of the 7 deadly Muda?

  1. Defects
  2. Over-Production
  3. Waiting
  4. Transportation
  5. Measuring

Answer: 5

 

Question#107: A process operating at 6 Sigma will only generate 3.4 defects per million opportunities?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#108: Lean is only about removing waste from the enterprise?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#109: Continuous variables are measured, Discrete variables are counted?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#110: Sort these 5S’s to the proper order of execution

  1. Sort
  2. Set in Order
  3. Shine
  4. Standardize
  5. Sustain

Answers above are ordered correctly

 

Question#111: Match the following test results with the correct conclusion:

  1. p-value=0.049 – Reject the Null
  2. p-value=0.490 – Fail to Reject the Null

Answers identified in red

 

Question#112: _________ is used to model the linear relationship between one output and two or more inputs?

  1. Multiple Linear Regression
  2. Simple Linear Regression
  3. Correlation Coefficent
  4. Residual Analysis

Answer: 1

 

Question#113: __________ is how consistent measurements deliver the same values under the same circumstances?

  1. Precision
  2. Reproducability
  3. Non Bias

Answer: 1

 

Question#114: The risk prioritization number is the product of the ______ score, _____ score and ______ score?

  1. Severity, Occurrence, Detection
  2. Severity, Occurrence, Prevention
  3. Mean, Median, Mode

Answer: 1

 

Question#115: _______ are the vertical differences between actual values and the predicted values or the “fitted line” created by a regression model?

  1. Residuals
  2. Outliers
  3. X’s
  4. Fitted Values

Answer: 1

 

Question#116: Process ________ measures how well the process performs to meet given customer specification limits?

  1. Capability
  2. Stability
  3. Variation

Answer: 1

 

Question#117: When the variance inflation factor of an independent variable is larger than ______ there is large multicollinearity for this variable in the model?

  1. 10
  2. 5
  3. 1

Answer: 1

 

Question#118: Mann-Whitney test is a statistical hypothesis test to compare the _______of two populations which are not normally distributed?

  1. Medians
  2. Means
  3. Standard Deviations
  4. Modes

Answer: 1

 

Question#119: Control limits are approximately _____ standard deviations away from the process mean?

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 6
  4. 1

Answer: 1

 

Question#120: __________ is the difference between the observed value and the true value of a measurement?

  1. Bias
  2. Precision
  3. Stability
  4. Capability

Answer: 1

 

Question#121: The underlying distribution of the P chart is the _____ distribution?

  1. Binomial
  2. F
  3. Exponential
  4. Normal

Answer: 1

 

Question#122: ______ should be used when trying to understand the links between customers, process steps and process outputs

  1. SIPOC
  2. FMEA
  3. Fishbone
  4. Thought Map

Answer: 1

 

Question#123: ______ is the measure or quantifiable degree of confounding?

  1. Resolution
  2. VIF
  3. RPN
  4. Alias

Answer: 1

 

Question#124: _________ is when more products are produced than are required by the next function or customer.

  1. Over Production
  2. Over Processing
  3. Motion
  4. Transportation

Answer: 1

 

Question#125: Poka-Yoke eliminates the defect as early as possible in the process

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#126: SPC is used to identify the ____ cause variation?

  1. Special
  2. Common

Answer: 1

 

Question#127: Kanban system is a ______ driven system?

  1. Pull
  2. Push

Answer: 1

 

Question#128: When the p-value is _____ than the α level, we reject the null and claim that there is a statistically significant difference between different groups?

  1. Less
  2. Greater

Answer: 1

 

Question#129: A _________ test is a statistical method in which a specific hypothesis is formulated about the population, and the decision of whether to reject the hypothesis is made based on sample data?

  1. Hypothesis
  2. Control
  3. Pareto

Answer: 1

 

Question#130: For the normal distribution, about _____% of the data fall within +/- 2 standard deviation from the mean?

  1. 95
  2. 67
  3. 99

Answer: 1

 

Question#131: Control charts presents the voice of the ______?

  1. Process
  2. Customer
  3. Business
  4. Associate

Answer: 1

 

Question#132: The first test in the Western Electric Rules is to check whether any one point on the control chart is more than ______ standard deviations away from the center line?

  1. 3
  2. 1
  3. 6

Answer: 1

 

Question#133: A ________ is a graphical tool to present the distribution of the data

  1. Histogram
  2. Multi-Vari Chart
  3. Box Plot

Answer: 1

 

Question#134: ________ is a continuous probability distribution which arises in the analysis of variance or test of equality between two variances?

  1. F Distribution
  2. Z Distribution
  3. Normal Distribution

Answer: 1

 

Question#135: The _________ distribution is a discrete probability distribution describing the probability of a number of events occurring at a known average rate and in a fixed period of time?

  1. Poisson
  2. F
  3. Exponential

Answer: 1

 

Question#136: Process stability is a prerequisite for process capability analysis?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#137: CTQ is an acronym that stands for what?

  1. Critical to Quality
  2. Critical to Quantity
  3. Cost to Quality

Answer: 1

 

Question#138: Population is grouped into distinct and independent categories and then samples are randomly or systematically selected in each category of the population. Which sampling strategy is it?

  1. simple random sampling
  2. stratified sampling
  3. cluster sampling

Answer: 2

 

Question#139: Statistical inference is the process of making inferences regarding the characteristics of an unobservable population based on the characteristics of the observed sample?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#140: ___________ is an analysis technique to identify, evaluate and prioritize a potential deficiency in a process so that the project team can design action plans to reduce the probability of the failure/deficiency occurring.

  1. FMEA
  2. Process Mapping
  3. Cause & Effect

Answer: 1

 

Question#141: The ________ metric is your critical measure, it’s the reason for your project, it’s your beacon. This metric is the single most important thing to understand in order for you to be successful.

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary

Answer: 1

 

Question#142: ______________ is applied to “infer” the characteristics or relationships of the populations from which the data are collected?

  1. Inferential Statistics
  2. Descriptive Statistics
  3. Applied Statistics

Answer: 1

 

Question#143: The process of selecting a subset of observations within a population is referred to as sampling?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#144: A ________ is a graphical representation of a process flow

  1. Process Map
  2. Primary Metric
  3. Control Chart

Answer: 1

 

Question#145: The _______ is used to visualize sources of variation

  1. Multi-Vari Chart
  2. Box Plot
  3. Scatter Plot

Answer: 1

 

Question#146: COPQ is an acronym that stands for?

  1. Cost of Poor Quality
  2. Cost of Proper Quality

Answer: 1

 

Question#147: A Six Sigma process will only produce this many defects per million opportunities?

  1. 3.4
  2. 340
  3. 3400

Answer: 1

 

Question#148: _________is applied to describe the main characteristics of a collection of data?

  1. Descriptive Statistics
  2. Inferential Statistics

Answer: 1

 

Question#149: _______ are flaws, errors or other non-conformities that compromise the value of a product.

  1. Defects
  2. DPMO
  3. DPU

Answer: 1

 

Question#150: _________ is applied to infer the characteristics or relationships of the populations from which the data are collected?

  1. Statistics
  2. Common Sense

Answer: 1

 

Question#151: The probability of a continuous variable falling within a particular region is the integral of the _________ over the region?

  1. probability density function
  2. probability mass function

Answer: 1

 

Question#152: In a Variable Gage R&R, the acceptable % contribution of variation attributable to Repeatability and Reproducibility should be less than _____%

  1. 10
  2. 30
  3. 1
  4. 90

Answer: 1

 

Question#153: The Japanese word for waste is Sieri?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#154: How might you display central location on a nominal scale?

  1. Median
  2. Mode
  3. Mean

Answer: 2

 

Question#155: What is a Y measure?

  1. Output
  2. Input
  3. Process

Answer: 1

 

Question#156: Who delivers the input for the CTQ?

  1. Customers
  2. CFO
  3. process owner

Answer: 1

 

Question#157: What isn’t interquartile range?

  1. measure of the middle 50% of the data set
  2. The value that exceeds at least 75% of the data set
  3. The difference between the 75th percentile point and the 25th percentile point

Answer: 2

 

Question#158: Some of the core concepts of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste, improving flow, and achieving  ___________

  1. Inventory
  2. Sales
  3. Pull
  4. Downtime

Answer: 3

 

Question#159: The essence of Six Sigma is to concentrate on removing waste (Muda) from a process while lowering costs.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#160: If the p-value is less than 0.05 what is the general rule?

  1. Reject the Ho
  2. Reject the Ha

Answer: 1

 

Question#161: Which of the following best describe Six Sigma?

  1. Metric, Methodology, Management System
  2. A Philosophical business system
  3. A measure for standard deviation
  4. A measure for variance

Answer: 1

 

Question#162: Which of the following best describe Sigma?

  1. A overall methodology that drives business improvement
  2. A measurement scale upon which improvements can be gauged
  3. A Greek letter referring to average

Answer: 2

 

Question#163: The higher a Sigma level the better?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#164: Which of the following might review Process Performance?

  1. A Project Sponsor
  2. A Process Owner
  3. A Project Stakeholder
  4. All are correct

Answer: 4

 

Question#165: What does DPMO stand for?

  1. Direct Proportion Measured Overall
  2. Defective Parts Measured Opportunities
  3. Defects per Million Opportunities
  4. Defective Parts Million Opportunities
  5. Defects per Million Operations

Answer: 3

 

Question#166: Where in your SIPOC might stakeholders be represented?

  1. Suppliers
  2. Customers
  3. Input
  4. Output

Answer: 2

 

Question#167: What is the long-term Sigma with a DPMO of 3.4 and a yield of 99.9996%?

  1. 10 Sigma
  2. 8 Sigma
  3. 6 Sigma
  4. 4 Sigma
  5. 2 Sigma

Answer: 3

 

Question#168: What are some LEAN Six Sigma objectives?

  1. Reducing variation
  2. Delivering business results
  3. Customer satisfaction
  4. Achieving business targets
  5. All of the above

Answer: 5

 

Question#169: To understand the CTQ attributes of a product or service, we need to get?

  1. SOD
  2. VOC
  3. FMEA
  4. SIPOC

Answer: 2

 

Question#170: What are some key outputs of the Define phase?

  1. Project Charter
  2. Primary Metric with Baseline
  3. Pugh Matrix
  4. Design of Experiment

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#171: Who should have the most influence when writing a business case for a project?

  1. Business owner, Process owner
  2. Black Belt
  3. Master Black Belt
  4. Subject Matter Expert

Answer: 1

 

Question#172: If we produce more than is needed by the next step in the process or more than the customer needs this is an example of which element of waste?

  1. Overprocessing
  2. Correction (defects)
  3. Motion
  4. Overproduction
  5. Speed

Answer: 4

 

Question#173: Which is not an example of hard savings?

  1. Factory Costs Reduction
  2. Lowered Inventory Carrying Costs
  3. Regaining Lost Sales
  4. Cycle time improvements lowering overtime hours paid

Answer: 3

 

Question#174: The Japanese word for waste is Muda?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#175: What is an X measure?

  1. Output Measure
  2. Process Performance Measure
  3. Input Measure

Answer: 3

 

Question#176: Specifically in Six Sigma, intentional changes in process performance comes from changing and controlling:

  1. Process inputs
  2. Process outputs
  3. Random variables
  4. Transparent variables

Answer: 1

 

Question#177: A quality control function was introduced to catch defects before shipment to the customer.  The cost of this quality control function is an example of:

  1. Cost related to detection
  2. Cost related to prevention
  3. Cost related to obligation
  4. Cost related to production

Answer: 1

 

Question#178: “Is the following problem statement well constructed? During 2012 the average cycle time for a Michigan factory product named “B352” was 237 seconds vs. a target of 218 seconds representing a gap of 19 seconds over target, costing the company $9356 per month or $112k per year. The goal of this project is to reduce “B352” cycle time to 218 seconds by the end of Q3 2013.

  1. Yes
  2. No

Answer: 1

 

Question#179: The only purpose of LEAN is to concentrate efforts on removing variation from a process output and lowering costs

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#180: Motorola was the birthplace for the practice of?

  1. LEAN Principles
  2. Automated Assembly
  3. Robotic Welding
  4. Six Sigma

Answer: 4

 

Question#181: When a process is proven to function at a 6 sigma level, this means there are less than 3.4 defects per ______ opportunities?

  1. Hundred
  2. Thousand
  3. Million
  4. Billion

Answer: 3

 

Question#182: Which of the following tools did Kaoru Ishikawa invent?

  1. Ishikawa diagram
  2. C & E diagram
  3. Fishbone diagram
  4. All of them
  5. Cause and Effect diagram

Answer: 4

 

Question#183: Which are not continuous data?

  1. Time
  2. Money
  3. Weight
  4. Length
  5. Customer type

Answer: 5

 

Question#184: What are Discrete Data?

  1. Weight
  2. Height
  3. Yes/No/Sometimes

Answer: 3

 

Question#185: Whis is not indicative of statistical inference

  1. Using representative sampling to draw conclusions about an entire population
  2. Estimating population parameters
  3. Using sampling analysis to make population predictions
  4. Estimating population parameters using the inverted w sampling method

Answer: 4

 

Question#186: What statistic is used for sampling?

  1. Sigma
  2. Mû
  3. Xbar

Answer: 3

 

Question#187: What is the Pareto Rule?

  1. 80/20
  2. 70/30
  3. 40/60
  4. 50/50

Answer: 1

 

Question#188: What type of data do we prefer?

  1. Continuous
  2. Attribute

Answer: 1

 

Question#189: How do we summarize discrete data?

  1. Counts and proportion
  2. Center, Location and Spread

Answer: 1

 

Question#190: How do we summarize continuous data?

  1. Center, Location, Range, Spread etc.
  2. Counts and proportion

Answer: 1

 

Question#191: What is the middle value of a set of data?

  1. Mean
  2. Median
  3. Mode

Answer: 2

 

Question#192: How is variance calculated?

  1. Max(data)-Min(data)
  2. The average squared distance of each data point from the mean
  3. Square root of s2
  4. +/- 3S

Answer: 2

 

Question#193: What do we need to know to completely describe a normal distribution?

  1. Mean and Variance or Standard Deviation
  2. Median and Variance or Standard Deviation
  3. Median and Range
  4. Variance and Standard Deviation

Answer: 1

 

Question#194: In a MSA, what knowledge needs to be obtained

  1. Is the measurement system stable over time?
  2. Is the measurement system capable of making the required measurement for this project or process?
  3. How big is the measurement system variability?
  4. What are the sources of measurement system variability?
  5. All answers are correct

Answer: 5

 

Question#195: What is Bias?

  1. The difference between the observed value and the true value
  2. The squared average difference between the observed values and the true range
  3. Sigma

Answer: 1

 

Question#196: The population used in statistics is defined as a sample large enough that you can analyze it and draw conclusions as to all of the data?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#197: Performance within the Upper Specification Limit (USL) and the Lower Specification Limit (LSL) will make a customer satisfied?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#198: An estimate of the probability of an event occurring depending on the standard deviation from the Mean is based on?

  1. Pareto’s Rule
  2. Shewhart Principle
  3. Mean/Mode Spread
  4. Empirical Rule

Answer: 4

 

Question#199: The Cp for a process with an average of 100 and a standard deviation (within) of 12 and upper & lower specification limits of 114 and 90 would be?

  1. .67
  2. 2
  3. 1.3
  4. .33

Answer: 4

 

Question#200: The Cpk for a process with an average of 100 and a standard deviation (within) of 2 with upper and lower specification limits of 114 and 94 would be?

  1. 1
  2. 2.3
  3. 1.67

Answer: 1

 

Question#201: A P-chart might be used to display the rate of defectives for this type of capability analysis?

  1. Continuous
  2. Attribute
  3. Poisson
  4. Stability

Answer: 2

 

Question#202: Which is the correct Defects per Million Opportunities (DPMO) calculation?

  1. (O/D)*1,000,000 Where D=Defects, O=Opportunities
  2. (D/U*O)*1,000,000 Where D=Defects, U=Units, O=Opportunities

Answer: 2

 

Question#203: What is the difference between Cp and Cpk?

  1. Cp takes into account where the mean of the sample is relative to the specification limits
  2. Cp takes into account the closeness of the mean to the “target”
  3. Cpk takes into account where the mean of the sample is relative to the specification limits
  4. Cpk only considers process variation relative to the spread of the USL and LSL

Answer: 3

 

Question#204: Select all that are desired outcomes of a Six Sigma program or project

  1. Customer Satisfaction
  2. Maximize the bottom line for the business
  3. Permanently eliminate the root cause of defects
  4. Salary Increase

Answer: 1,2,3

 

Question#205: A skewness of 2,3453 can imply what?

  1. Distribution is skewed to the right
  2. Distribution is skewed to the left
  3. Normal distribution
  4. Bi-modal distribution

Answer: 1

 

Question#206: How many factors are used to calculate RPN?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Answer: 3

 

Question#207: A kurtosis of -1,2754 indicates?

  1. Platykurtic (flat with a short tail)
  2. Leptokurtic (peaked with long tails)
  3. Multi-modal (more than one distribution)

Answer: 1

 

Question#208: Hypothesis testing can help establish a statistical difference among factors in data sets?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#209: A two-sample T-test does which of the following?

  1. Subtracts the mean of sample 1 from sample 2 and compares the difference to zero to determine if they are equal
  2. Compares the medians to determine if sample 1 is statistically difference from sample 2
  3. Compares the means to determine if sample 1 is statistically difference from sample 2

Answer: 3

 

Question#210: Which of the following is TRUE about Type I and Type II errors?

  1. A Type II error is at least 2x larger than a Type I error
  2. A Type I error deals with input variables (Xs) and a Type II error deals with output variables (Ys)
  3. A Type I error is incorrectly rejecting the Null Hypothesis (HO) while Type II error is failing to reject the Null Hypothesis (HO) when you should
  4. You can eliminate the possibility of a Type II error but not a Type I error

Answer: 3

 

Question#211: What are confidence intervals (CI)?

  1. The number of times out of 100 that the average result will fall within the bounds just calculated based on our sample result
  2. At certain confidence intervals with upper confidence limits (UCL) and a lower confidence limit (LCL) has a x% chance of containing the true mean

Answer: 2

 

Question#212: The Central Limit Theorem says that…

  1. The sample means of many iterates of samples will approach being normally distributed regardless of the underlying distribution from which the samples were drawn.
  2. A sample will always show the correct distribution if the sample size is above 30

Answer: 1

 

Question#213: What test is used with an attribute Y and 3 X’s?

  1. 1 sample T-test
  2. 2 sample T-test
  3. ANOVA
  4. F-test or Levene
  5. 2 Proportion
  6. Chi-Square

Answer: 6. Chi-Square

 

Question#214: What test should be used when comparing the average height of people from 2 different countries?

  1. 1 sample t-test
  2. Chi-Square
  3. 2 sample t-test
  4. F-test or Levene
  5. 2 Proportions test

Answer: 3

 

Question#215: Which test should be used to compare the average results of 7 different Green Belt classes?

  1. 1 sample t-test
  2. 2 sample t-test
  3. ANOVA
  4. F-test or Levene
  5. 2 Proportions test

Answer: 3

 

Question#216: When is the F-test NOT used?

  1. When one of the groups are non-normally distributed
  2. When the Levene test is easier
  3. When both data sets are normally distributed

Answer: 1

 

Question#217: In an MSA, total variability is from

  1. Part to Part variation only
  2. Reproducibility
  3. Repeatability
  4. Reproducibility + Repeatability + Parts

Answer: 4

 

Question#218: Select all correct responses, Hypothesis testing can help us…

  1. Make 100% risk free decisions
  2. Separate special cause from noise
  3. Make fact-based decisions

Answer: 2,3

 

Question#219: A department has a hypothesis that its sales average is $17,200 per month. A sample report of 11 months shows a mean of $16,221. The standard deviation is $3,996. Using an alpha level of 5% and degrees of freedom (DF), what is the critical-T value for a 2 sided test as required in this case:

  1. 1.833
  2. 2.228
  3. 2.262
  4. 6.314

Answer: 2

 

Question#220: If a hypothesis test shows a p-value of 0.28, but we see a practical difference, what could be reasons for failing to reject the null when there may be a difference?

  1. Human error in data collection
  2. Sample size too small
  3. Sample size to large

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#221: Every hypothesis test must..

  1. have Ho and Ha
  2. have a defined alpha level
  3. assume an underlying distribution

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#222: The Mann-Whitney test focuses on what?

  1. Mean
  2. Variation
  3. Median

Answer: 3

 

Question#223: What is the primary purpose of linear correlation analysis?

  1. To measure the strength of the linear association between two variables
  2. To get an average indication
  3. To calculate ‘s’

Answer: 1

 

Question#224: Multiple linear regression is best described by which?

  1. One X, One Y
  2. Two X’s, Two Y’s
  3. Two or more X’s, One Y
  4. Two or more X’s, Two or more Y’s

Answer: 3

 

Question#225: What is the coefficient in this regression formula: Length = 3.5 + 1.29 mass

  1. 3.5
  2. -3.5
  3. 1.29
  4. -1.29

Answer: 3

 

Question#226: Regression analysis does not rely on this assumption about the residuals

  1. to be normally distrubuted
  2. to be independent of each other (no patterns and time ordered)
  3. non-constant variance

Answer: 3

 

Question#227: When are correlation and linear regression not used?

  1. to understand the strength and direction of a relationship
  2. to understand what happens to the value of X when the value of Y is increasing by one unit
  3. to establish a prediction equation that will enable us to predict Y for any level of X

Answer: 2

 

Question#228: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. the Pearson correlation coefficient “r” will always fall between -1.0 and 1.0
  2. a correlation of -0.9 indicates a strong positive relationship
  3. a correlation of 0.9 indicates a strong positive relationship

Answer: 2

 

Question#229: When is the degree of association Moderate?

  1. 0.9 <= r <= 1, R^2 > 80%
  2. 0.7 <= r <= 0.9, R^2 = 50% to 80%
  3. r= < 0.3, R^2 =25%

Answer: 2

 

Question#230: How is the transformation of non-normal data into normal data done?

  1. Using Cox plot
  2. Using a mathematical function to transform data

Answer: 2

 

Question#231: What does a variance inflation factor (VIF) of 5 indicate?

  1. No multicollinearity
  2. Medium multicollinearity
  3. Large multicollinearity

Answer: 2

 

Question#232: One factor at a time (OFAT) is a type of DOE

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#233: Which tool is used to compare more than two sample proportions with each other?

  1. 2 sample T-test
  2. Mann-Whitney
  3. Contingency Tables
  4. Moods Median

Answer: 3

 

Question#234: If extreme outliers exist in a dataset, this would warrant the use of __________ to illustrate the center location.

  1. Mean
  2. Median
  3. Mode

Answer: 2

 

Question#235: A reduction in any type of Muda will always reduce outliers and defects?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#236: We can better sustain standardized work with which of the following? more than one response may apply.

  1. 5S
  2. Visual Factory
  3. Andon
  4. Kanban

Answer: 1,2

 

Question#237: 5S Sorting: Items used weekly should be kept _______?

  1. Within arm’s reach
  2. In a local location
  3. In a remote location

Answer: 2

 

Question#238: Kanban systems are quick fixes to large inventory problems, workforce issues, poor product planning, fluctuating demand cycles etc.

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect

Answer: 2

 

Question#239: Mistake proofing is defined as…

  1. Making sure we discover when a defect occurs
  2. Using wisdom or ingenuity to create devices allowing 100% defect free steps 100% of the time
  3. Find the reason (proof) of mistakes

Answer: 2

 

Question#240: Good mistake proofing should..

  1. be simple
  2. require no investment in money or resources
  3. be automatic

Answer: 1,3

 

Question#241: You can use an individuals chart to track process outputs and to detect the presence of special causes using a sample size of 1?

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect

Answer: 1

 

Question#242: The Xbar chart plots the average values of each of a number of small sampled subgroups

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect

Answer: 1

 

Question#243: Which is incorrect about U-charts?

  1. The U-chart does not need a constant sample size
  2. U-chart control limits will always be straight lines
  3. The U-chart is used for discrete data

Answer: 2

 

Question#244: The NP and P-charts are used for tracking _________?

  1. defects
  2. defectives

Answer: 2

 

Question#245: Control charts and their limits are the?

  1. Voice of the process
  2. Voice of the customer
  3. Voice of the employee

Answer: 1

 

Question#246: What is the DPU in this example: 423 defects, 7600 units

  1. 17.97
  2. 0.056
  3. 5.57

Answer: 2

 

Question#247: Can you add standard deviations?

  1. Yes
  2. No

Answer: 2

 

Question#248: Can you add variance?

  1. Yes
  2. No

Answer: 1

 

Question#249: An intended outcome of using SPC should be?

  1. Process speed
  2. Process capability
  3. Process stability

Answer: 3

 

Question#250: Variation of the outputs of a process refers to how broadly distributed the results are relative to the average.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#251: If a process is determined to be operating at a 6 sigma level then the number of defects per million opportunities is?

  1. 0.34
  2. 34
  3. 3.4
  4. 6

Answer: 3

 

Question#252: The output of any process is comprised of the various inputs to that process. This concept is best expressed with which of the following formulas?

  1. Y = 2(X1 + X2 + X3 +Xn)
  2. Y= A+ B +C
  3. Y= f(X1 +X2 +Xn)
  4. Y =f(X1/Xn)

Answer: 3

 

Question#253: Much of the efforts in a LEAN Six Sigma project are driven by a concept called VOC which stands for:

  1. Velocity of Commerce
  2. Voice of the Company
  3. Voice of the Customer
  4. Variation of the Concept

Answer: 3

 

Question#254: As a Belt mapping a process she/he will use a ______________ symbol to designate a decision point in the process.

  1. Rectangle
  2. Diamond
  3. Parallelogram
  4. Circle

Answer: 2

 

Question#255: Which of the following represents the information we are trying to achieve by seeking input from our customers in determining what is important to them?

  1. CTQ’s
  2. Primary interests
  3. Price sensitivities
  4. Quality features

Answer: 1

 

Question#256: Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can involve both Hard and Soft Costs.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#257: The data analysis technique that separates more important factors, typically in a ratio of 80:20, is ________?

  1. X-Y Diagram
  2. Pareto Analysis
  3. Fishbone Diagram
  4. Data Spreadsheet

Answer: 2

 

Question#258: Which tool has as its objective as the identification of various potential causes or factors influencing a process output?

  1. Fishbone Diagram
  2. FMEA
  3. Pareto Chart
  4. Impact Study

Answer: 1

 

Question#259: When a Belt adds information to a Process Map that defines which department is responsible for the various activities displayed, it could be referred to as _____________?

  1. Fault Trees
  2. Duty Designations
  3. Swim Lanes
  4. Authority Channels

Answer: 3

 

Question#260: A SIPOC diagram helps us get a good overall look at a process since it identifies the Suppliers, Inventories, Process steps, Outputs and Customers

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#261: Early in a LSS project a Belt may assemble a number of people familiar with the process to identify various ways something could fail and what problems that failure would cause. Which tool would the belt use for this?

  1. MSA
  2. FMEA
  3. X-Y Diagram
  4. SIPOC

Answer: 2

 

Question#262: Which of the following is not an example of continuous data?

  1. The car was 15 min late
  2. The container held 44 liters
  3. 15 out of 47 people left the bus

Answer: 3

 

Question#263: The difference between the largest number of a data set and the smallest is called the_______?

  1. Variance
  2. Median
  3. Range
  4. Mode

Answer: 3

 

Question#264: In a Measurement System, _______________ is a measure of how tightly grouped a set of data is while ________________is a measure of how close to a target a set of data is.

  1. Precision, Centeredness
  2. Accuracy, Precision
  3. Accuracy, Tightness
  4. Precision, Accuracy

Answer: 4

 

Question#265: Capability Analysis is a measurement of the ability of the process to meet specified requirements.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#266: In order for us to determine the performance of our process at the beginning of a LSS project we must gather data on its long term performance in an “as-is” condition. This is commonly referred to as ______________?

  1. Existing Condition
  2. Process Baseline
  3. Original Data
  4. Pre-Project Data

Answer: 2

 

Question#267: Stability in an MSA is the consistency of measurements of the same objects over time?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#268: Lean Principles define _______ forms of waste that should be addressed by a business enterprise.

  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 10

Answer: 3

 

Question#269: The 5S principle that says remove all items not required for the re-occurring work at hand and keeping only bare essentials nearby is known as?

  1. Sorting
  2. Shining
  3. Straightening
  4. Standardizing

Answer: 1

 

Question#270: The Lean technique that focuses on making “important work flow issues” noticable is called?

  1. Value Stream
  2. Muda
  3. Visual Factory
  4. Kaizen

Answer: 3

 

Question#271: A method utilized to streamline workflow in a manner that minimizes waste through the use of signals that trigger “flow” through each process step is known as?

  1. Mistake Proofing
  2. Kanban
  3. Sustaining
  4. Shewhart Principle

Answer: 2

 

Question#272: A Control Plan is finalized at the end of a LEAN Six Sigma project and given to the Process Owner so she/he can follow it exactly for the remaining life of the process

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#273: As part of the deliverables from a Belt in the control phase of a LSS project, guidelines must be established as to what process operators are to do when outputs begin to operate outside of established limits. These guidelines are known as the _________.

  1. Specification Limits
  2. Kanban System
  3. Control Limits
  4. Response Plan

Answer: 4

 

Question#274: Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6 standard deviations from the mean.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#275: Profit and market share would be the concern of which of the following?

  1. Voice of the Customer
  2. Voice of the Government
  3. Voice of the Process
  4. Voice of the Business

Answer: 4

 

Question#276: As we conceive and define a LEAN Six Sigma project, one of the overriding objectives we hope to accomplish is to reduce the __________

  1. Work force
  2. Number of process steps
  3. Inventory
  4. Cost of Poor Quality

Answer: 4

 

Question#277: SIPOC stands for Suppliers, _______, Process, Output and Customers

  1. Inventory
  2. Investments
  3. Inputs
  4. Indicators

Answer: 3

 

Question#278: With Measurement System Analysis, we are concerned with Precision and _______ of the data to be collected.

  1. Sensitivity
  2. Reliability
  3. Accuracy
  4. Variability

Answer: 3

 

Question#279: The Mode is the least frequently occurring value in a distribution of data.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#280: One of the primary objectives of constructing an X-Y Matrix is to separate the vital few X’s from the trivial many.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#281: If a set of data is very similar in value from point to point yet far off the mark relative to a given target value, this data could be said to be…

  1. Precise but not accurate
  2. Accurate but not precise
  3. Accurate but not distributed
  4. Precise but skewed

Answer: 1

 

Question#282: Stability, Bias and Linearity define the __________ of a Measurement System

  1. Sensitivity
  2. Repeatability
  3. Accuracy
  4. Precision

Answer: 3

 

Question#283: Deviations of measured values over time from the true value is known as ________?

  1. Bias
  2. Linearity
  3. Repeatability
  4. Stability

Answer: 4

 

Question#284: Variation in measurements made by different appraisers using the same measuring instrument when measuring identical objects is referred to as?

  1. Reproducibility
  2. Bias
  3. Repeatability
  4. Linearity

Answer: 1

 

Question#285: The practice of utilizing Mistake Proofing is also known as…

  1. Detection
  2. Lean Controls
  3. Inspection
  4. Poka-Yoke

Answer: 4

 

Question#286: The 5S approach utilized by a Belt to separate necessary from unnecessary items and frequently used items from infrequently used items is known as?

  1. Sorting
  2. Shining
  3. Standardizing
  4. Sustaining

Answer: 1

 

Question#287: The Control Plan is created following the finalization of the Improve phase and can be closed when?

  1. After the project costs have been recouped
  2. When the Sponsor says so
  3. Never, a control plan must stay in place
  4. End of year (project year)

Answer: 3

 

Question#288: How should CTQ’s not be establsihed?

  1. VOC
  2. Complaints
  3. Requirements
  4. What you think the customer wants

Answer: 4

 

Question#289: From business perspective, select all that are important reasons for embracing LEAN Six Sigma?

  1. Cost Reductions
  2. Customer Satisfaction
  3. Revenue Improvements
  4. Improving Internal Capabilities
  5. Achieving Compliance and Regulatory Adherence

Answer: 1,2,3,4,5

 

Question#290: The SIPOC provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT:

  1. Providing a framework applicable to the assessment of processes
  2. Identifying key drivers to outputs
  3. Displaying cross-function activities in simple terms
  4. Helping maintain the big business picture

Answer: 2

 

Question#291: In most cases, an project team is most autonomous and receives the least amount of direction during which of the following stages?

  1. Forming
  2. Storming
  3. Norming
  4. Performing

Answer: 4

 

Question#292: A 2 Sample t-test has several assumptions, which of the following is one of those key assumptions?

  1. Data is non-normally distributed
  2. The variables are independent
  3. Variances are unequal
  4. The underlying distribution is binomial

Answer: 2

 

Question#293: With a sample size of 16, an average of 12, and a standard deviation of 3, estimate the 95% confidence interval for the population (assume a normal distribution)

  1. 10.45 < Xbar < 13.55
  2. 10.53 < Xbar < 13.47
  3. 10.76 < Xbar < 13.23

Answer: 2

 

Question#294: The use of station warning lights, tools boards, and jidohka devices represents the use of which lean concept?

  1. Visual Factory
  2. Gemba
  3. Muda

Answer: 1

 

Question#295: A concept that addresses the consistency of process workers is called ________?

  1. Visual Factory
  2. Supervising
  3. Standard Operating Procedures

Answer: 3

 

Question#296: As part of a 5S activity tags or stickers are used to identify items in need of elimination or other categorization. This process is conducted at what stage of the 5S process?

  1. Sort
  2. Set in Order
  3. Shine
  4. Standardize
  5. Sustain

Answer: 1

 

Question#297: The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products or services are produced

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#298: When a Belt applies the practice of Poka-Yoke to a project, she/he is attempting to make certain the activity is _______

  1. Mistake proofed
  2. Well documented
  3. Removed from the line
  4. Highly visible

Answer: 1

 

Question#299: In 5S, the approach that deals with cleansing, repairing, and/or painting machinery or other work spaces is known as which stage?

  1. Shine
  2. Sort
  3. Sustain
  4. Standardize
  5. Set in Order

Answer: 1

 

Question#300: SPC on the outputs is more preferred than SPC on the inputs when implementing SPC for your process.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#301: Variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that typically fall into which frequently used categories of variation?

  1. Common cause and special cause varition
  2. Common & Uncommon variation
  3. Random & Cyclical variation

Answer: 1

 

Question#302: When it comes to Control, one of the most effective means of eliminating defects is to…

  1. Keep a Six Sigma project going on the process at all times
  2. Design defect prevention into the product or process
  3. Train personnel often and thoroughly
  4. Have each process consist of no more than five steps

Answer: 2

 

Question#303: for a good control chart implementation, you should re-calculate control limits and center-lines often?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 2

 

Question#304: The data on SPC charts are typically constructed such that the most recent data point is the last one on the right?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: 1

 

Question#305: Which statement describes an undesirable situation when implementing SPC?

  1. The MR chart of an IMR chart is out of control but individuals chart is in control
  2. The lower Control Limit for the R chart is equal to zero
  3. A process is in Statistical Control before implementation of SPC

Answer: 1

 

Question#306: Which pair of control charts is most preferred for subgroup sizes of 10 or less using continuous data?

  1. Individual & Moving Range
  2. Xbar-R Charts
  3. Xbar-S Charts
  4. P and nP Charts

Answer: 2

 

Question#307: A Belt concludes a Lean Six Sigma project with the creation of a Control Plan. At what point should the Control Plan be closed out?

  1. Never, a Control Plan is a living document
  2. When the project is delivered to the process owner
  3. When the process is in control
  4. When the process has been in control for 12 months

Answer: 1

 

Question#308: If a project yields monthly savings of $4,000 beginning 4 months after implementation with an initial investment of $42,000 and training costs of $2,000, what is the 3 year ROI from implementation?

  1. 1.9
  2. 2.9
  3. 2.27
  4. 3.27

Answer: 1

 

Question#309: If a project yields monthly savings of $4,000 beginning 4 months after implementation with an initial investment of $42,000 and training costs of $2,000, what is the 5 year ROI from implementation?

  1. 4.09
  2. 4.45
  3. 5.09
  4. 5.45

Answer: 1

 

Question#310: “Why is the following not a well written problem statement? During 2015 the average cycle time for a Detroit factory product named “AK23” was too slow. The goal of this project is to reduce “Ak23” cycle time.

  1. There is no metric baseline
  2. The metric target or goal is not identified
  3. The gap to goal and cost of poor quality is not identified
  4. There is no timeline associated with the project goal

Answer: 1,2,3,4

 

Question#311: What is not a good reason for spending so much time in the Define phase?

  1. Establishing a good business case and project charter
  2. Defining the problem before trying to solve it
  3. Filling out redundant templates, getting unnecessary approvals and completing administrative tasks

Answer: 3

 

Question#312: As a standard for a process to be at the 6 Sigma quality level, it must have?

  1. Cp & Cpk >2
  2. Cp & Cpk > 1.5
  3. Cp >1.5 & Cpk >2.0
  4. Cp >2.0 & Cpk >1.5

Answer: 1